Linguist and theologian Moisés Silva encourages us to read Scripture carefully—but not too carefully, or with the wrong kind of care: Surely an inspired text must be full of meaning: we can hardly think that so much as a single word in the Bible is insignificant or dispensable. Recently in a Bible study group there was some discussion about Isaiah 9:6. I read it in detail years ago, but it’s not fresh in my mind. But I do not believe this is what Christian love in the New Testament is. Louis, can you point to some of these “grammarians of greater experience and noteworthiness”. If all this is true then perhaps the grief of Peter was, as the text states, “because he asked the third time”. I am still searching for the first distinction in the New Testament anywhere between fileo and agapao. True enough. It has often been said that the Greek words agapao, phileo, erao mean different kinds of “love”. Listen to a dean of evangelical Old Testament study, Walt Kaiser: Greek and Hebrew study involves more than a mere ability to parse verbs and look up words in a lexicon or concordance or in one of several analytical tools in ways that can be taught in a matter of two to four hours of instruction. http://www.tms.edu/m/tmsj20e.pdf. He further noted that Syriac or Aramaic has only one word for love from which the Greek was translated. Aramaic is very difficult to translate into another language. (citation). How is the AP calling Virginia in favor of Biden even though he's behind on the vote count? One question on the John 21 passage. Any thoughts? (citation). I have read and come to realise that there are differences between Bible words and Bible sentences. Merrill Tenney pointed out in his comments on the gospel of John that Jesus most likely spoke to Peter in Aramaic, in which neither one of the greek words would have mattered. (Not that everyone who knows these languages is immune from this temptation!) This is very formal. While very little, they are closely connected to mom. But your appeal to context (“because he asked the third time”) is the way forward on this question of verb alternation in John 21. I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it would fit better on. Tim, I wrote about this in an article at the Logos Academic Blog, “Did Jesus Speak Greek?”. (citation), And now to love, because John 21 provides a perfect example of what Dr. Decker is talking about. Thanks for contributing an answer to Christianity Stack Exchange! I have read DA Carson's exeetical fallacies. But I have so far not been able to see any concrete proof that it is the case. He’s no novice. Ylang ylang is extremely effective in calming and bringing about a sense of relaxation, and it may help with releasing feelings of anger, tension, and nervous irritability. Love must be lived. Agape is not “conditioned by the worthiness of its object.” Instead, Agape is creative….It is not that God loves that which is in itself worthy to be loved: but, on the contrary, that which in itself is without value acquires value by the fact that it is the object of God’s love. The NIV previously translated agape as "truly love" and phileo simply as "love", but the 2011 edition loses the distinction, translating both identically. Therefore, some of your assertipns in “What Agape Really Means” are undermined by the omission of this fact. We must recall this basic principle: the richness and divine origin of the biblical message are not compromised by the naturalness and simplicity of the form in which God has chosen to communicate to us. Still, even if Jesus and His disciples used two different Aramaic words for love, the writer and/or translator putting his words into Greek would have been stuck with only one possible word that would fit and that would be, So when Jesus said that “God so loved the word” He used the Aramaic word. I believe the original manuscripts of the Gospels were written in Aramaic and translated into Greek about twenty years later, but even if I am wrong and they were originally written in Greek, the writer would still have had to translate his words and those of Jesus directly from the Aramaic. [Sorry to allude to a specific thing in a public form; I’m just not up to reconstructing the entire argument here.]. Can you comment or clarify? However, in John 21:20 where we read about the disciple that Jesus loved the Greek uses the word Agape, but the Peshitta uses the Aramaic word Racham which is identical to the Hebrew … But the next use, three verses later, is people loving darkness rather than light (3:19). Hence, when it is said that God loves man, this is not a judgment on what man is like, but on what God is like.” Agape is not “conditioned by the worthiness of its object.” Instead. Even if Aramaic was Jesus's usual language, this particular conversation shows evidence of extraordinary formality. The exact nuances of agape versus phileo, and of chav versus racham, may not exactly correspond, and there is no real consensus on the nuances of any of them. Much of what passes for biblical interpretation, whether in books or sermons, implies that God has used an artificial, coded, or even esoteric language. Kind of interesting is the fact that three was a sore spot for the disciple along with the fact that John chose to open the narrative with the fact that this was the third time Jesus appeared to his disciples. 1 John 3:16 says we know love because Jesus laid down His life for us, and we ought to lay down our lives for the brothers. If you enjoy our Hebrew Word Studies please “LIKE” us on FaceBook….Thank You! Not rebuking, just saying…, Robert le Clus said, “Jesus would have spoken Aramaic in all these conversations which were written down by John in Greek later”. I think God speaks from His Word to say to the reader what the reader needs to know and not necessarily a precise exegesis. Trying to define that love into a single Greek word is, to me, as dangerous as trying to confine the living God into something physical. I am not a Greek scholar. This article explores this question and includes the statement: More evidence is also deduced from the silence of the Greek speaking Fathers of the Church who do not make mention of this distinction in the verbs for love when they comment on this passage. Would it be any help in clarifying what Leedy said to re-read his Biblical Viewpoint article on the topic? In Greek, the dialogue goes like this: Jesus uses the word for God's love the first two times, and Peter responds with brotherly love all three. The love of God, quoting Dr. D.A.Carson, is a difficult doctrine. Great article—thinking about having my Greek students read it today. Mr. Peters is not calling Carson's exegesis fallacious. Why is character "£" in a string interpreted strange in the command cut? Jesus would have spoken Aramaic in all these conversations which were written down by John in Greek later. It is not that God loves one person more than the other, He loves all equally, it is just that very few will love Him in return and complete His love, bring Him the joy of His love, awaken Him in that love, and cause Him to sing with joy in that love.

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